Jizya - Poll Tax

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Jizya - poll tax Dec 29, 2009
(This was posted in an older thread, but a new thread for eh - notably so he can see the quotes from Kennedy etc - I have separately posted verbatim quotes from Kennedy and other historians/scholars which reinforce the definition given below. The Muslim also paid taxes and had military responsibilities as well - as below makes clear, paying the Jizya exempted the citizen from Muslim taxes and military service.

Taxes are hardly ever popular, but paying differentiation in the tax system is only penal if the taxes are higher than paid by Muslims (who also had to serve in the military).

What is Jizya:

References:I'll quote 3 Hadith (there are more):

* Sunan Abu-Dawud Book 13, Number 2955 mentions that Umar ibn al-Khattab levied jizya on non-Muslims in return for providing protection to them.
* Book 19, Number 2955 has Umar ibn al-Khattab stating that he provided protection for non-Muslims by levying jizya on them, and neither took one-fifth from it, nor took it as booty.
* Book 19, Number 3031 states that Muhammad captured Ukaydir, the Christian prince of Dumah, and spared his life and made peace with him on the condition that he paid jizya.


This summary makes reference to books listed after the text

Under Islamic law, jizya or jizyah is a per capita tax levied on the state's non-Muslim citizens. The tax was levied on able bodied men of military age,[1] (with some exemptions,[2][3] though these were discarded at various points in history[4]). From the point of view of the Muslim rulers, jizya was a material proof of the non-Muslims' subjection, "just as for the inhabitants it was a concrete continuation of the taxes paid to earlier regimes."[5]

In return, non-Muslim citizens were permitted to practise their faith, to enjoy a measure of communal autonomy, to be entitled to Muslim protection from outside aggression, to be exempted from military service and taxes levied upon Muslim citizens.[6][7][8]

References:
[1] Kennedy, Hugh (2004). The Prophet and the Age of the Caliphates. Longman, 68.
[2] Shahid Alam, Articulating Group Differences: A Variety of Autocentrisms, Journal of Science and Society, 2003
[3] Ali (1990), pg. 507
[4] "The provisions of ancient Islamic law which exempted the indigent, the invalids and the old, were no longer observed in the Geniza period and had been discarded by the Shāfi‘ī School of Law, which prevailed in Egypt, also in theory." Goiten, S.D. "Evidence on the Muslim Poll Tax from Non-Muslim Sources", Journal of the Economic and Social History of the Orient 1963, Vol. 6, pp. 278-279.
[5] Cl. Cahen in Encyclopedia of Islam, Jizya article
[6] John Louis Esposito, Islam the Straight Path, Oxford University Press, Jan 15, 1998, p. 34.

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Re: Jizya - poll tax Dec 29, 2009
Strange thread - typically, you would start a new thread showing evidence for your stated belief. In this case, you would post these 'historians' and 'scholars' of yours showing that non-Muslims paid less in taxes than Muslims. However, and I may have missed it since it was a copy/paste job, I didn't see anything of the sort.

There is an interesting story behind Muhammad's expedition to Tabuk and the capture of the Christian prince. If memory serves me correctly, he was out hunting with a company of followers and they were unfortunately captured by Khalid ibn Walid. I say unfortunate because the prince's entire entourage were quickly slaughtered.

The prince was brought before Muhammad - feeling subdued as per verse 9:29 from the Koran, and he was made to pay 'jizya' to Muhammad in the form of 800 slaves and various other goods, such as cattle or livestock and such.

Well, to me, that's an interesting story. I don't think it had a particularly happy ending because Muhammad and company were involved, but it does show the true character of the early Muslims - as if another story needed to show the early Muslims were butchers.
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Re: Jizya - poll tax Dec 29, 2009
Here you go, on this link, pg 22, the Muslim historian mentions that Muhammad took from the prince as Jiyzyah:

Life of the Prophet Muhammad: Al-Sira Al-Nabawiyya

By Ibn Kathir

http://books.google.com/books?id=clreHA ... ad&f=false

800 prisoners (Montgomery Watt refers to them as slaves)
1000 camels
400 coats of mail
400 lances

So, the Muslims made off quite well from the expedition of Tabuk. It also seems that this was the start of the great Islamic slave trade (the enslavement and selling (for weapons) of over one thousand Jewish women and children could arguably also be considered the start of the Islamic slave trade).
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Re: Jizya - poll tax Dec 29, 2009
As I stated, all taxes are unpopular.

Are you just against taxes in general, or do you think that asking adult males to pay less tax than Muslims paid in return for security and exemption from military duty is too discriminatory?

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Re: Jizya - poll tax Dec 29, 2009
What was that? Did you offer some evidence for your belief that non-Muslims paid less in taxes than Muslims?

Or are you simply repeating yourself now?
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Re: Jizya - poll tax Dec 29, 2009
I am surely repeating myself (I stated so in my first post).

So, are we now at the point where we agree that Jizya is a tax and that you just now need to be shown evidence that Muslims paid a higher tax?

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Re: Jizya - poll tax Dec 29, 2009
Ok, I'll wait for the quotes from 'scholars' and 'historians' that non-Muslims paid less in taxes than Muslims.
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Re: Jizya - poll tax Dec 29, 2009
Do I take it then that the answer the question below is 'yes'.

shafique wrote:So, are we now at the point where we agree that Jizya is a tax and that you just now need to be shown evidence that Muslims paid a higher tax?



Great- but I'd like you to confirm - I don't want to be accused of jumping to conclusions.

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Re: Jizya - poll tax Dec 29, 2009
I'm not aware of that. Could you please quote these 'historians' and 'scholars' to see what they actually have to say? I find that particularly difficult to believe since the taxes Muslim paid was based off of a percentage of their income whereas non-Muslims paid a flat tax. The only way to know who paid more would be to know how much people made back then and adjust the money to the value of modern currency.

These taxes also varied as did the amount of tax owed to the government. But, good luck, maybe I'll start a thread for you on this issue so every one can, once again, witness your deep, scholarly knowledge on this topic


Let me know if you need more time to google. Maybe I can find a 'scholar' or 'historian' who sides with you.
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Re: Jizya - poll tax Dec 29, 2009
I don't understand why you are having trouble just confirming that we now agree that Jizya is a tax and need to compare whether Muslims paid more than non-Muslims.

This is how I interpret what you have quoted above, but I just want you to confirm this.

There is no need to re-value the sums paid to modern day values - we just need to compare the taxes paid by Muslims at the time when Jizya was levied and work out which was higher. (The relationship will remain the same when you revalue, as both amounts will increase by the same % amount).

So, are we agreed that Jizya is a poll tax and just needs to be compared to the taxes paid by Muslims?

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Re: Jizya - poll tax Dec 29, 2009
The issue was over your claim that Muslims paid more in tax than non-Muslims. You'll have to quote 'scholars' and 'historians' who concur with your belief. Jizya was one tax non-Muslims paid, but there were other taxes - and these taxes were paid at different times and, I believe, were charged different amounts, etc.

Considering that Jizya was a flat tax, as I remember, you'll have to cite historians who explain just how much this flat tax was - that's assuming the tax they paid remained constant and didn't fluctuate, as I know it did.

For example, during the early occupation of Egypt by the Muslims, the taxes the non-Muslims paid were relatively light. Christian historians, such as John of Nikiu, write favorably of the Muslim general Amr ibn al-As for how reasonable he was towards the Christians, including how much the Christians were taxed [Umar is recorded to have ordered the Christians of Egypt to be taxed more, which Amr ibn al-As wisely chose to ignore], however, John of Nikiu also writes of the burden Christians faced under later caliphs who heavily taxed Christians - he recounts rioting that led to swift reprisals (ie., massacres) by the Muslims at the turn of the 8th century.

This is simply to point out that taxes against the dhimmi changed over the years and it is actually impossible to know who paid more because of that, but also because no one knows how much the flat tax was the dhimmis were required to pay (in addition to other taxes they would have to pay as well), who would be forced to pay and how much Muslims and non-Muslims made, on average, during that time - since zakat was a percentage of what Muslims made.

But let's see what wikipedia says:

Although in general it is unclear whether Muslims or Dhimmis (despite not having to pay Zakat) had to pay higher taxes, Lewis notes that there are varying opinions among scholars as to how much of an additional burden this was.[79] According to Norman Stillman: "Jizya and kharaj were a crushing burden for the non-Muslim peasantry who eked out a bare living in a subsistence economy."[83] Ultimately, the additional taxation was a critical factor that drove many dhimmis to shun their religion and accept Islam.[7]


So, please let me know what you may have come across through your googling. Maybe you'll surprise me, but I doubt it.
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Re: Jizya - poll tax Dec 30, 2009
event horizon wrote:The issue was over your claim that Muslims paid more in tax than non-Muslims.


Yes. This is a claim I made - and yes, but you are ignoring the logic behind this statement.

I just wanted you to confirm that IF this is the case, then this poll tax cannot be viewed as discriminatory (negatively).

Do you agree?


event horizon wrote: You'll have to quote 'scholars' and 'historians' who concur with your belief. Jizya was one tax non-Muslims paid, but there were other taxes - and these taxes were paid at different times and, I believe, were charged different amounts, etc.


Sure. What taxes had to be paid are stipulated in a number of historic documents.

event horizon wrote:Considering that Jizya was a flat tax, as I remember, you'll have to cite historians who explain just how much thisflat tax was - that's assuming the tax they paid remained constant and didn't fluctuate, as I know it did.


Yes, it was a flat tax but varied by ability to pay and was not paid by all non-Muslims (there were many exemptions). Muslim were levied taxes on capital, livestock, real estate etc - and yes the taxes were a % of value. There was also a threshold below which no tax was payable (still applies today). We can examine the rates of these taxes and compare what a Muslim of certain income/wealth would pay and compare that against the taxes he would have to pay if he were a non-Muslim. That is a fair comparison, yes?

I agree that the application of Jizya varied over time and in different territories. Jizya was also abolished over time - so the rate dropped to zero.

However, the point remains - do you concede that if taxes paid by non-Muslims is lower than taxes paid by Muslims, then the system cannot be viewed as discriminating +against+ non-Muslims?

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Re: Jizya - poll tax Dec 30, 2009
Let me know when you quote these 'historians' and 'scholars'.
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Re: Jizya - poll tax Dec 30, 2009
I know it is frustrating for you that I am still emphasising that I want clarity on the principle before we look at the numbers.

There has been much discussion previously on what Jizya is - and a denial by some that it is a tax.

I want to clarify that it is a tax, and it can only be deemed discriminatory if it is shown that a non-Muslim would pay less tax if they converted.

If you accept this point, please say so and we can then look at specific examples. However, I will make a start.

I will start with the easy examples first (as the tax rules apply differently to different segments of society - depending on wealth, sex, occupation etc).

Let's start then with a class of society that has zero % jizya.

The Rabbis, Priests, Nuns, Monks etc under muslim rule have to pay 0% jizya. All of these people would have to pay Zakat (there is no exemption for any Muslim - just a wealth threshold).

So all the Priests etc that had assets worth more than 200 dirhams would be better off (financially) by staying non-Muslim, rather than converting and having to pay Zakat (and other taxes - but we'll ignore these for now). Clergy with assets below 200dirhams would not be financially worse off, but would have to take part in military service if they were able bodied.

This is pretty clear-cut - I can provide the historian's quotes that back this up, but it's pretty uncontroversial.

So, do we agree that the Rabbis, priests, monks, nuns etc are not discriminated against in relation to the Jizya? (Please also don't forget to answer the general point of principle)

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Re: Jizya - poll tax Dec 30, 2009
Jizya was applied to every free adult male member of the People of the Book. Slaves, women, children, the old, the sick,[3] monks, hermits and the poor,[4] were all exempt from the tax, unless any of them was independent and wealthy. However, these exemptions were no longer observed during some periods in Muslim history, and discarded entirely by the Shāfi‘ī School of Law.


What was that? You were pontificating about something?
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Re: Jizya - poll tax Dec 31, 2009
I was answering your question about showing that the tax for non-Muslims was lower than that for Muslims.

So, starting with the Clergy/Rabbis/Nuns - any one of these religious people who had wealth in excess of 200 dirhams would have to pay more in taxes if they converted to Islam. (Jizya of 0% is lower than Zakat of 2.5% on assets)


Ergo, for all religious workers - Islam did not discriminate against them fiscally - but actually protected their rights.

Agreed?

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Re: Jizya - poll tax Dec 31, 2009
event horizon wrote:
Jizya was applied to every free adult male member of the People of the Book. Slaves, women, children, the old, the sick,[3] monks, hermits and the poor,[4] were all exempt from the tax, unless any of them was independent and wealthy. However, these exemptions were no longer observed during some periods in Muslim history, and discarded entirely by the Shāfi‘ī School of Law.


What was that? You were pontificating about something?
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Re: Jizya - poll tax Dec 31, 2009
So, we agree that I have indeed shown that Jizya is less than Muslim taxes for these religious people?

Excellent.

Blows a hole in the Orientalist view of Islam, doesn't it?

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Re: Jizya - poll tax Jan 01, 2010
If you ignore the evidence presented that your claim of 'religious workers' not paying anything in taxes is simply false, then I suppose you would be correct.

You're also going to have to cite sources for the claims you made in this thread already. You imply that taxes people paid was at a fixed rate when this isn't true. If you provide a figure for how much non-Muslims owed in taxes, then back it up with a source that explains the location and time period this was imposed on non-Muslims.

It's disingenuous to claim that non-Muslim paid an x amount of taxes without further clarifying when and where they paid that amount in taxes.
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Re: Jizya - poll tax Jan 02, 2010
event horizon wrote:If you ignore the evidence presented that your claim of 'religious workers' not paying anything in taxes is simply false, then I suppose you would be correct.


You'd have to present that evidence for me to ignore it.

The only evidence you provided CONFIRMED that clergy etc paid zero % Jizya.

event horizon wrote:
Jizya was applied to every free adult male member of the People of the Book. Slaves, women, children, the old, the sick,[3] monks, hermits and the poor,[4] were all exempt from the tax, unless any of them was independent and wealthy.


Can we at least agree that those paying 0% Jizya would not be worse off financially if they converted?

For other categories of people (by wealth, occupation etc) we will indeed look at the specific levels of taxes that non-Muslims and Muslims would pay - and look at specific references for rates of taxes (Zakat etc vs Jizya). I only need to show that the Muslim taxes are greater than the taxes paid by the non-Muslims for my point to be made - and as the taxes do vary by category, we need to look at one category of people at a time.

So, the poor and the religious orders would not be worse off if they converted - do we agree?

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Re: Jizya - poll tax Jan 02, 2010
The only evidence you provided CONFIRMED that clergy etc paid zero % Jizya.


Actually, it didn't just say that. You should try reading. The practice of clergy not paying taxes who were below the poverty line was not always enforced and under one school of jurisprudence, clergy paid the jizya no matter what their income level was.

So, the poor and the religious orders would not be worse off if they converted - do we agree?


Well, let's see if your belief corroborates what historians say. You have a way of butchering history, so I'll take the views of historians as opposed to your beliefs.

Apparently, you must have forgotten what was asked of you. I asked you which 'historians' and 'scholars' support your belief that non-Muslims paid less in taxes than Muslims. So, which historians say this?

As for the poor, it's odd that you would make the claim that they paid less, seeing as that historians say otherwise.

Scholars differ as to the exact burden imposed by the jizya tax. Documentary evidence, including that found in eleventh-century Cairo Geniza documents, suggest that the burden, at least for the poorer classes, was heavy. As the taxation amount was fixed in gold, it became less burdensome over the centuries.[49]


burden
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Re: Jizya - poll tax Jan 04, 2010
Let's take this in bite-sized chunks and not deal only with exceptions.

Do you agree that the rules for Jizya say that clergy, rabbis, nuns, monks etc pay zero % jizya. We can separately check out the exceptions pointed out by wiki - noting when and who followed the Shafii school of though.

Do we agree that if clergy etc lived under Muslim rule and were subject to zero % jizya, they would be financially worse off if they converted?

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Re: Jizya - poll tax Jan 04, 2010
Ok, request for a scholar/historian's view on Jizyah - here is an extract from such a person. The link gives the full text and also the references he uses (I've not included the footnotes in the extract, but the link gives all the footnote references).



PREACHING OF ISLAM
A History of the Propagation of the Muslim Faith
BY
Sir Thomas W. ARNOLD

Pg 54 to 57:

Enough has been said to show that the Christians in the early days of the Muhammadan conquest had little to complain of in the way of religious disabilities. It is true that adherence to their ancient faith rendered them obnoxious to the payment of jizyah or the capitation-tax, but this was too moderate to constitute a burden, seeing that it released them from the compulsory military service that was incumbent on their Muslim fellow-subjects. Conversion to Islam was certainly attended by a certain pecuniary advantage, but his former religion could have had very little hold on a convert who abandoned it merely to gain exemption from the jizyah ; in certain cases also, instead of the kharaj or land-tax, he was allowed to pay a tithe on the produce, but in other cases the kharilj was exacted even after conversion. But, instead of jizyah, the convert had now to pay the legal alms, zakat, annually levied on most kinds of movable and immovable property.

The rates of jizyah fixed by the early conquerors were not uniform, and the great Muslim doctors, Abu Hanifah and Malik, are not in agreement on some of the less important details the following facts taken from the Kitabu-1 Kharaj, drawn up by Abu Yusuf at the request of Harunu-r Rashid (a.d. 786-809) may be taken as generally representative of Muhammadan procedure under the Caliphate. The rich were to pay 48 dirhams a year, the middle classes 24, while from the poor, i.e. the field-labourers and artisans, only 12 dirhams were taken. This tax could be paid in kind if desired ; cattle, merchandise, household effects, even needles were to be accepted in lieu of specie, but not pigs, wine, or dead animals. The tax was to be levied only on able-bodied males, and not on women or children. The poor who were dependent for their livelihood on alms and the aged poor who were incapable of work were also specially excepted, as also the blind, the lame, the incurables and the insane, unless they happened to be men of wealth ; this same condition applied to priests and monks, who were- exempt if dependent on the alms of the rich, but had to pay if they were well-to-do and lived in comfort. The collectors of the jizyah were particularly instructed to show leniency, and refrain from all harsh treatment or the infliction of corporal punishment, in case of non-payment.

This tax was not imposed on the Christians, as some would have us think, as a penalty for their refusal to accept the Muslim faith, but was paid by them in common with the other dhimmis or non-Muslim subjects of the state whose religion precluded them from serving in the army, in return for the protection secured for them by the arms of the Musulmans. When the people of Hirah contributed the sum agreed upon, they expressly mentioned that they paid this jizyah on condition that " the Muslims and their leader protect us from those who would oppress us, whether they be Muslims or others." Again, in the treaty made by Khalid with some towns in the neighbourhood of Hirah, he writes, “If we protect you, then jizyah is due to us ; but if we do not, then it is not due." 5 How clearly this condition was recognised by the Muhammadans may be judged from the following incident in the reign of the Caliph 'Umar. The Emperor Heraclius had raised an enormous army with which to drive back the invading forces of the Muslims, who had in consequence to concentrate all their energies on the impending encounter. The Arab general, Abu 'Ubaydah, accordingly wrote to the governors of the conquered cities of Syria, ordering them to pay back all the jizyah that had been collected from the cities, and wrote to the people, saying, We give you back the money that we took from you, as we have received news that a strong force is advancing against us. The agreement between us was that we should protect you, and as this is not now in our power, we return you all that we took. But if we are victorious we shall consider ourselves bound to you by the old terms of our agreement." In accordance with this order, enormous sums were paid back out of the state treasury, and the Christians called down blessings on the heads of the Muslims, saying, " May God give you rule over us again and make you victorious over the Romans ; had it been they, they would not have given us back anything, but would have taken all that remained with us."

As stated above, the jizyah was levied on the able-bodied males, in lieu of the military service they would have been called upon to perform had they been Musalmans ; and it is very noticeable that when any Christian people served in the Muslim army, they were exempted from the payment of this tax. Such was the case with the tribe of Jarajimah, a Christian tribe in the neighbour- hood of Antioch, who made peace with the Muslims, promising to be their allies and fight on their side in battle, on condition that they should not be called upon to pay jizyah and should receive their proper share of the booty. When the Arab conquests were pushed to the north of Persia in a.h. 22, a similar agreement was made with a frontier tribe, which was exempted from the payment of jizyah in consideration of military service.

We find similar instances of the remission of jizyah in the case of Christians who served in the army or navy under the Turkish rule. For example, the inhabitants of Megaris, a community of Albanian Christians, were exempted from the payment of this tax on condition that they furnished a body of armed men to guard the passes over Mounts Cithseron and Geranea, which lead to the Isthmus of Corinth. Similarly, the Christian inhabitants of Hydra paid no direct taxes to the Sultan, but -[furnished instead a contingent of 250 able-bodied seamen to the Turkish fleet, who were supported out of the local treasury. The Mirdites, a tribe of Albanian Catholics who occupied the mountains to the north of Scutari, were exempt from taxation on condition of supplying an armed contingent in time of war. 2 In the same spirit, in consideration of the services they rendered to the state, the capitation tax was not imposed upon the Greek Christians who looked after the aqueducts that supplied Constantinople with drinking-water. On the other hand, when the Egyptian peasants, although Muslim in faith, were made exempt from military service, a tax was imposed upon them as on the Christians, in lieu thereof.


http://www.archive.org/stream/preaching ... t_djvu.txt
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Re: Jizya - poll tax Jan 06, 2010
Jizya comes from jaza' meaning reward or compensate. The Quran also says:

As for such who do not fight you on account of faith, or drive you forth from your homelands, God does not forbid you to show them kindness and to deal with them with equity, for God loves those who act equitably. God only forbids you to turn in friendship towards such as fight against you because of faith and drive you forth from your homelands or aid in driving you forth. As for those from among you who turn towards them for alliance, it is they who are wrongdoers. 60:8-9

It also says:

Permission (to fight) is given to those against whom war is being wrongfully waged, and verily, God has indeed the power to aid them. Those who have been driven from their homelands in defiance of right for no other reason than their saying, ‘Our Lord is God.’ 22:39-40

So the verse must be read in the Quranic context and it seems its talking about the crowds of Mecca.

2.193. And fight them on until there is no more Tumult or oppression, and there prevail justice and faith in God, but if they cease, Let there be no hostility except to those who practise oppression

So it seems its talking about the persecutions in Mecca and upon the prophet's return to Mecca these verses came down. Its not a generic verse since the Quran seperates between the parties depending on their history with the prophet and his propagation and depending on their persecution of him and his followers.

The verse about the people of the book(Jews and Christians) also its talking about a certain crowd since the Quran itself says:

Not all of them are alike: of the People of the book are a portion that stand (for the right); they rehearse the signs of Allah all night long and then prostrate themselves in adoration. They believe in Allah and the Last Day; they enjoin what is right and forbid what is wrong; and they (hasten in emulation) in (all) good works; they are in the ranks of the righteous. Of the good that they do nothing will be rejected of them; for Allah knoweth well those that do right. 3.113

And there are certainly among the people of the Book those who believe in Allah in the revelation to you and in the revelation to them bowing in humility to Allah: they will not sell the signs of Allah for a miserable gain! for them is a reward with their Lord and Allah is swift in account. 3.199

"Surely those who believe, and those who are Jews, and the Christians, and the Sabians -- whoever believes in God and the Last Day and does good, they shall have their reward from their Lord. And there will be no fear for them, nor shall they grieve" (2:62, 5:69, and many other verses).

So I think this is talking about the crowd in Mecca who sent the prophet to exile and he and his followers lost their homes and property and this is a compensation(jizya) payment. Jizya has no relevance linguistically to tax. Tax in Arabic is dhareeba. Jizya is a reward.

The sects(Sunni/Shia) say:

Monqiz As-Saqqar attributes the word jizya to the root word jaza meaning "compensate" and defines it as "a sum of money given in return for protection".[14]
Ibn Al-Mutaraz derives the word from 'idjzã, meaning "substitute" or "sufficiency" because "it suffices as a substitute for the dhimmi's embracement of Islam."[14]
Yusuf al-Qaradawi says the word jizya is derived from the jazaa', meaning "reward", "return", or "compensation", and defines it as "a payment by the non-Muslim according to an agreement signed with the Muslim state".[15]

Yet none of their definition justifies payment. Its clear from all their definition whether its subsutitute, reward or compensation that its talking about compensation or reward or substitution for something. It can not be for their rejection of faith since that is something not the prophet's business and not all of them were talked about in the Quran as I have shown. Its obvious this is about the crowds at Mecca after the prophet and his followers returned to after nearly 12 years in exile and the many battles fought.

The Quran tells the prophets:

16:82 But if they turn away from you, your only duty is a clear delivery of the Message .

6:107 Yet if God had so willed, they would not have ascribed Divinity to aught besides Him; hence, We have not made you their keeper, nor are you a guardian over them.

4:79-80 Say:'Whatever good betides you is from God and whatever evil betides you is from your own self and that We have sent you to mankind only as a messenger and all sufficing is God as witness. Whoso obeys the Messenger, he indeed obeys God. And for those who turn away, We have not sent you as a keeper."

24.54. Say: "Obey God, and obey the Messenger. but if ye turn away, he is only responsible for the duty placed on him and ye for that placed on you. If ye obey him, ye shall be on right guidance. The Messenger's duty is only to preach the clear (Message).

88:21 22; And so, exhort them your task is only to exhort; you cannot compel them to believe.

39:41 Assuredly, We have sent down the Book to you in right form for the good of man. Whoso guided himself by it does so to his own advantage, and whoso turns away from it does so at his own loss. You certainly are not their keeper

109.1-6 Say : O ye that reject Faith,! I worship not that which ye worship, Nor will ye worship that which I worship, And I will not worship that which ye have been wont to worship, Nor will ye worship that which I worship, To you be your Way, and to me mine.

What do people today or even those back then who were not persecuting the prophet and his propagation have to do with all this? The Quran makes it clear that no hostilities except with those who pratice oppression.

I think this is a case when something specific has been made very general without looking at the Quranic context and the Quranic guidelines.

Others have said Jizya could be ransom for the prisoners. Some of Jews we know who aided the pagans were captures. The verses in chapter 9 looks to be talking about the pilgrimage treaty between Muhammad and his followers and the crowds at Mecca. So this could be also a refernce to the Jews of Mecca paying the ransom(fidya) for their Jewish brethren held as prisoners with the prophet and his followers.

33,26. And those of the People of the Book who aided them - Allah did take them down from their strongholds and cast terror into their hearts. (So that) some ye slew, and some ye made prisoners.

33.27. And He made you heirs of their lands, their houses, and their goods, and of a land which ye had not frequented (before). And Allah has power over all things

So Jizya could also be in reference to this event. In anyways its hard from a Quranic point of view to understand Jizya the way the Sunni or Shia sects do which is taxes imposed on "non Muslims" simply for not being "Muslims" but getting protection anyways. Especially if these "non Muslims" never asked for their protection in the first place.

Its a money grab if you ask me. Although at 5% its not much of a tax. Thats what I think the sects asked for anyways. Maybe there were other ways to make money out of the so called non Muslims.
Thebigmo
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Re: Jizya - poll tax Jan 09, 2010
Eh-oh will you stop polluting the forums acting like mutant ninjas.
Don't worry there is no problem with ticking the same tune like a broken clock. We know that you can't help to infest the forums as it is part of your assigned job on the web. So rest in peace in EH - will you?
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Re: Jizya - poll tax Jan 12, 2010
Nisaab ul-Zakat for naqd (gold and silver) is defined as the minimum amount of naqd specified by shari’a below which one is not required to pay zakat, whereas if one’s wealth exceeds it then zakat becomes incumbent.

And it is known that zakat ul-maal (wealth) in shari’a is required for the two types of naqd—gold and silver—and what serves their function in modern times (commonly referred to as cash), whether it is dollars or riyals or pounds or otherwise.

Nisaab for gold as our Prophet (peace be upon him) has informed us (and for currencies made from gold) is 20 mithqaalan, a measure which is equivalent to 85 grams of pure gold (1 mithqaal = 4.25 grams). It becomes incumbent upon anyone who owns such an amount in any form to pay zakat on it in the amount of 2.5%.

Nisaab for silver and currencies made from silver is 200 dirhams, which is equivalent to 595 grams of pure silver (1 dirham = 2.975 grams). Likewise, it becomes incumbent upon anyone who owns such an amount in any form to pay zakat on it in the amount of 2.5%.

It is well known that there is a noticeable disparity between the value of nisaab for gold and that of silver in our times. The best and most conservative for a poor person is to assess how many dollars he has that have been in his possession for a complete lunar year (Hijri, which is 354 days). If the amount reaches the value of nisaab for silver or more, then he should pay from it for every 1000 dollars, 25 dollars (i.e., 2.5%) to be spent in the prescribed benficiaries as specified by shari’ah, and we ask Allah to aid us and help us succeed in haqq il-maal wa salla allahu ala nabiyyana muha


http://www.islam-qa.com/en/ref/64/zakat

Muslims who made less than 200 dirhams were not required to pay zakat.

So, let's look at this again. Poor non-Muslims were required to pay 12 dirhams (plus any other taxes) if they made 200 dinars (or many times, as in Egypt, regardless if they fell under the poverty line). A non-Muslim who made around 200 dirhams per year had to pay 12 dirhams in taxes whereas a Muslim who made 200 dirhams would have been required to pay 5 dirhams.

Muslims who made four hundred dirhams would still pay less (ten dirhams) than non-Muslims who made 200 dirhams.

Middle-class non-Muslims, probably in the range of between 400-600 dirhams per year, were required to pay 24 dirhams. So, at best, only the rich non-Muslims and upper middle-class would have been unaffected by Jizya compared to Muslims who were required to pay zakat. Then again, the rich are always unaffected by taxes and the wealthy Muslims would not be burdened from taxes which were set at 2.5% for them either.

QED.
event horizon
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Re: Jizya - poll tax Jan 13, 2010
eh - you asked for a reference from a historian.

I gave you a pretty extensive quote from Arnold.

Did you read it? If so, doesn't that say that Jizya wasn't a burden?

I take it we agree on the obvious fact that all those excempt from Jizya (the unemployed, clergy, women, sick etc) would be financially worse off if they converted. If so, we can look at your example of another category of people and ascertain whether they would be financially worse off or not).

What is interesting is that the poverty line was 200 dirhams a year - and the Jizya was set at 12 dirhams a year for the poorest. This shows that Arnold is correct when he says Jizya was not a burden at all - and coupled with the instruction that the collectors should be compassionate - this pretty much kills off your argument.

Also you are missing the fact that a Muslim with wealth of 200 would have to pay Zakaat on that 200 (it is not the same as income - Zakaat is a capital tax, Jizya is a capitation tax). A Muslim on the poverty line would not have savings in excess of the minimum level - if they do, then they pay the 2.5% on that. However, this is not the only tax they have to pay.

But even for arguments sake, let us say that a non-Muslim could make a saving of 7 dirhams a year if they converted (pay 5 instead of 12) - this is 3.5% of the minimum poverty level. If they lifted themselves out of poverty by doing so, they would end up paying more taxes and also be eligible for military service.

Hardly worth the initial extra 7 dirhams a year - I think you would agree.

I'm almost half-way through Arnold's book -what is a recurring theme is that the Jizya tax was far less harsh than the taxes being paid to Christian rulers immediately prior to the territorial conquests by Muslims - this is especially the case in Europe.

Cheers,
Shafique
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Re: Jizya - poll tax Jan 13, 2010
It speaks volumes to note that shafique is once again shifting the goal posts in this very thread.

The reader may recall that shafique was initially asked to provide quotes from the 'scholars' and 'historians' shafique has claimed to have read supporting the belief that Muslims paid more in taxes than non-Muslims. Now, it appears, that shafique is once again setting up strawmen in his last post.

Shafique has chosen to quote a late, fossilized historian to explain Jizya. Shafique's last statement in regards to his reading of a book by this historian that he is only *now* reading says that non-Muslims were not burdened by the taxes they were required to pay.

Fascinating. But that wasn't the actual *point* of this thread. This thread was started to find out which of the 'historians' and 'scholars' that shafique has read claim that non-Muslims paid less than Muslims in taxes.

Shafique has *failed* to do this, let alone even give some half-hearted attempt at quoting any of these 'scholars' and 'historians' he claims to have read.

So, can I take from it you that you have not actually read these 'scholars' and 'historians' you originally stood behind as supporting your belief that non-Muslims paid less in taxes than Muslims? Can we just leave it at that you are not aware, because you did not actually read anything from 'scholars' and 'historians', of any scholar or historian who sides with your premature and poorly researched claim that non-Muslims paid fewer taxes than Muslims? To me, it sounds like another example of 'all mouth, no trousers'.
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Re: Jizya - poll tax Jan 14, 2010
Who's shifting goal-posts?

I said we'd look at each category and establish whether my assertion that Muslims paid higher taxes was right or wrong. I was to quote from historians and scholars to back this comparison up.

The long quote from T Arnold above even contains bits I've highlighted in red to help you (I know you are a bit loath to read long quotations - and it takes a bit of time to understand what is being written).

From Arnold, he says a. The Jizya was too small to be a burden, b. he lists who is exempted, and c. states that Muslims pay Zakat and other taxes. Arnold, being a scholar, assumed we would be able to work out the consequences of these facts - so the clarifications I was making were only for your benefit, to aid your comprehension of what he wrote.

We've established that those paying zero % Jizya are indeed benefiting from a lower tax burden than Muslims. (Surely you agree with this fact)

Now you've moved to the poor - fair enough. By implication you've agreed therefore that the middle class and wealthy classes would indeed be worse off financially if they converted. Great - we don't have to go further on this, its another obvious fact now.

So looking at those who are above the poverty level that would exempt them from the capitation tax (as the rules say the very poorest are exempt), and looking at the subset of people who would pay 12 dirhams a year Jizya and who would pay 5 dirhams in Zakat (plus other taxes) if they converted to Islam.

For arguments sake, I said we could ignore the (other taxes) and look at what 7 dirhams meant in absolute terms. Given that the poverty threshold was 200 dirhams wealth (capital/savings at the end of the year) - this confirms what Arnold says about the Jizya being minimal/trivial.

So, AT BEST, you could say that some poor Christians could make a 7 dirham saving if they converted to Islam and if there were no other taxes other than Zakat. But they would also have to serve in the military.

Therefore, in all - I'd still argue that Muslims have the higher tax burden - I'd argue that not serving in the miltary is worth more than a 7 dirham per annum saving. (And in any case, this saving is reversed if they raise themselves out of poverty).

QED.

Cheers,
Shafique
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Re: Jizya - poll tax Jan 14, 2010
Shafique, do you have any actual quote from a 'scholar' or 'historian' you claim to have read who says non-Muslims paid less in taxes than Muslims?

This was what you originally said.

Do you need more time to google?
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